bluejak 427 posts Forum Host Reply
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Re: explanation ( 23:13:45 WedJun 11 2003 ) | |
It does depend a bit on local methods. If most people would understand cue-bid as first or second round control then the explanation, while not really adequate, is hardly misleading.
But in most parts of the world a cue-bid without further amplification would be understood as first-round control, expecially the first cue-bid by a player, and an adjusted score might easily be given if a pair plays first or second round controls but does not say so.
--- David Stevenson <laws2@blakjak.com> Liverpool, England, UK http://blakjak.com/lws_menu.htm | | | |